I'm dealing with a question in type theory: Is it possible to assign types to $\alpha$, $\beta$, and $\gamma$ in such a way that both $(\alpha (\beta))(\gamma)$ and $\alpha (\beta (\gamma))$ are well-formed expressions?
Now, I have a couple of questions:
Since the type syntax I'm looking at is constructed out of types of symbols e and t, where e represents an entity and t represents formulas, such that $<e, t>$ represents a one-place 1st order predicate sentence. Should therefore all sentences have an individual expression; an entity e? Could e.g. a verb function as such an expression and in that case, can the theory account for that?
How should I tackle the parentheses? Should it be read as in mathematics? Is $\beta$ a function of $\alpha$, and thus $\alpha(\beta)$ then in turn a function of $\gamma$ in the first sentence? I am trying to understand in what order should I construct the meaning. Is otherwise the sentence constructions done quite independently of the brackets which functions rather as "semantic indicators", pointing to semantic ambiguities e.g?
Do you reckon it is possible?
N.B. I'm quite new to this so help and guidance would be much appreciated. :)
If both of the expressions in your question are well-formed, then $\beta(\gamma)$ and $\beta$ would have the same type, because they both occur as the argument of $\alpha$. In the type theories I'm acquainted with, such a thing (a function having the same type as its output) is not possible. (Indeed, it would seem to defeat the purpose of having types in the first place.)