Please help I’m very confused about this. If $[r]$ and $[s]$ are two cosets of the set $R/A$ (Where $A$ is an ideal of the ring $R$) why are we allowed to define $[r]*[s]=[rs]$ when we only know that $[r]*[s]$ is a subset of $[rs]$?
2026-05-14 03:45:11.1778730311
Quotient Ring multiplication
41 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in RING-THEORY
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