Is it true $Q[x]/\langle(x-1) \rangle \subset $ $Q[x]/\langle(x-1)(x-2) \rangle$ ?
What do you think about that?
Plus Is $Q[x]/\langle(x-1) \rangle$ a subring or ideal of $Q[x]/\langle(x-1)(x-2) \rangle$?
I thought like the below but I'm not sure whether right or not.
Here is a My thought
As a point of view of the set, the two set are disjoint hence neither subset nor subring(or ideal).
In general if $I,J$ are ideals of ring $R$ with $I\subseteq J$ then the function $\nu:R/I\to R/J$ prescribed by $r+I\mapsto r+J$ is a well defined surjective ringhomomorphism.
This reveals that $R/J$ is isomorphic with a quotient of $R/I$.
Observe that the underlying sets of these rings are distinct if $I\neq J$.
So it is out of the question then that one is a subring of the other.
Applying that on:
we find that $\mathbb Q[x]/\langle(x-1)\rangle$ can be looked at as (isomorphic with) a quotient of $\mathbb Q[x]/\langle(x-1)(x-2)\rangle$.