This question is about random walks on finite groups that are periodic but not irreducible. It follows on from this MO question.
Let $G$ be a finite group and $\Sigma\subset G$. Suppose $\Sigma$ generates a proper subgroup $H\leq G$. Suppose further that $\Sigma\subset Nh$, a coset of $N\rhd H$, a proper normal subgroup.
In this case $H/N\cong C_d$, where $d$ is the period of the random walk (equal, e.g. to the order of the coset $Nh$ in $H/N$).
So we have $H\leq G$, and the random walk, essentially, bounces around $H/N\cong C_d$.
Suppose further that there exists disjoint subsets $S_0,S_1,\dots,S_{d-1}\subset G$ of size $|G|/d$ such that:
- $\displaystyle \bigcup_{i=0}^{d-1}S_{i}=G$
- $\Sigma^{(k)}\subset Ng^k\subset S_{k}$, where $k$ is understood$\mod d$
- again for $k,\,\ell$ understood$\mod d$, for any $k$, $\ell$, $\displaystyle \Sigma^{(k)}\subset S_{k+\ell}(S_\ell)^{-1}$
My question is whether the cyclic nature of $H/N$ is reflected in these $S_k$.
Can there exist an element $x\in S_k$ such that there exists elements in $y\in S_m$ (but not $Nh^m$) and $z\in S_n$ (but not in $Nh^n$) such that $$yz=x,$$ but $m+n\neq d$.
I am fairly sure that there is a counterexample for groups $N\rhd H\not\rhd G$. I was trying to construct one using direct products but had to give up. Perhaps a counterexample might exist for $S_3\times S_4$ or $S_4\times S_4$.
The following follows from the linked question.
Let $G=S_3\times C_2$ and let $H\leq G$ be $H=\{(e,0),((12),0),(e,1),((12),1)\}$ and $N\rhd H$ be given as $N=\{(e,0),((12),0)\}$.
Let $\Sigma=\{(e,1),((12),1)\}$ and note this generates $H$ and $\Sigma=N(e,1)$ and the walk jumps between $N$ and $N(e,1)$.
Now define $S_0=\{(e,0),((12),0),((13),1),((23),1),((123),1),((132),1)\}$ and $S_1=G\backslash S_0$. This is a partition of unity and also the powers of $N(e,1)^k$ lie in $S_{k}$ (understood $\mod 2$)... and we have the inclusions of $\Sigma^{(k)}\subset S_{k+\ell}(S_\ell)^{-1}$.
Now let $y=z=((132),0)$ both in $S_1$. Note $$x=yz=((123),0)\in S_1,$$
and $1+1\neq 1\mod 2$, so we have a counterexample