This problem is for children and I found it while reading Ray's Intellectual Arithmetic. It is under the ratios topic.
Problem :
$C$ and $D$ join their stocks in trade; $C$ puts in $50\$$ for 4 months, and $D$ $60\$$ for 5 months. They gain $45\$$. What is the share of each?
Solution :
$C$'s $50\$$ for 4 months = $200\$$ for 1 month. $D$'s $60\$$ for 5 months = $300\$$ for 1 month. $200\$ + 300\$ = 500\$$. $C$ has $\frac{2}{5}$ of $45\$ = 18\$$ and $D$ has $\frac{3}{5}$ of $45\$ = 27\$$.
What is vague to me here is $C$'s $50\$$ for 4 months is the same as $200\$$ for 1 month. Why is this the same and how should children know this?
EDIT
Here is a similar question from the same book:
Problem :
At the beginning of the year $C$ went into business with a capital of $600\$$, four months after $D$ formed a partnership with $C$ and put in $600\$$. The gain for the year was $250\$$. What was each one's share?
Solution :
$C$'s capital = $600\$$ for 12 months, or $7200\$$ for 1 month. $D$'s $600\$$ for 8 months, or $4800\$$ for 1 month. $7200\$ + 4800\$ = 12000\$$
Rest of the solution with fractions is the same.
Imagine this problem:
In this case, it's a fairly clear argument that C dedicated 200 worker-hours and D 300 worker-hours, so a 40-60 split of the payment is appropriate. The problem you bring up has the same concept, but it is measuring the opportunity cost of cash in the units of dollar-months. I've never heard of this notion before and I'm not sure that it's actually a "thing" in finance, but it's not utterly implausible.