I am trying to solve the following equation: \begin{align} \frac{1}{2 D}\frac{\partial m(x,t)}{\partial t} &= \frac{\partial^2 m(x,t)}{\partial x^2} - \frac{m(x,t)}{\lambda_{sf}^{2}}\\ m(x,0) &= 0\\ \frac{\partial m(0,t)}{\partial x}&= f(t)\\ m(\infty,t) &= 0 \end{align}
I have tried a method suggested here. However, I cannot work out the BCs for $\phi(x)$. I have tried using $\phi_x(0) = f(t) $ and $\phi(\infty) =0 $ but I don't think $\phi_x(x)$ can be a function of $t$ so that BC doesn't make sense.
I am sure I am missing something really obvious I just can't think of it. I have pages of latex notes I have not uploaded but can if someone would like to see them.
*** EDIT ***
The solution should tend to an equilibrium solution as $t \rightarrow \infty$.
Also I know $f(t)$ is approximately $-Ae^{-Bx} + D$. Although I do not know the exact formula as another (more complicated) PDE dictates the rate of change of the solution at the boundary which has not been solved either.
Typically you would have boundary conditions specifying both $m(0, t)$ and $\dfrac{\partial m}{\partial x}(0,t)$, as well as the initial condition $m(x,0)$. You are missing the boundary condition on $m(0,t)$, so your problem is underdetermined.