On page 255 of the book "Handbook of Mathematical Functions" by Milton Abramowitz and Irene A. Stegun, it is mentioned that
$$\lim_{z \to n} \frac{1}{\Gamma{(-z)}}=0=\frac{1}{(-n-1)!}.$$
I am not able to understand why it is equal to $\frac{1}{(-n-1)!}$. Thank you in advance for any help.