I am learning set theory and one of my questions was this:
Is the set of fractions between 0 and 1 an infinite set?
I initially thought the answer was yes, but one of this possible answer confused me:
The statement is false; the set of all real numbers between 0 and 1, which includes both fractions and irrational numbers, is an infinite set, but the set of fractions alone is a finite set.
Could someone please help me rationalize whether this is true or not?