Is the set of numbers of computable partial functions from $\mathbb N\to\mathbb N$, taking only a finite number of values, recursive?
I think yes, but I have some problems with explaining it.
Is the set of numbers of computable partial functions from $\mathbb N\to\mathbb N$, taking only a finite number of values, recursive?
I think yes, but I have some problems with explaining it.
No, this set is not recursive. One way to prove it is by Rice's theorem, but I'll assume you haven't seen that theorem and I'll give a more elementary proof. Fix some computably enumerable but not computable set $X\subseteq\mathbb N$ and fix an algorithm $A$ that enumerates $X$. For each natural number $n$, let $f(n)$ be the number of an algorithm $B_n$ that does the following on any input $k\in\mathbb N$: Perform the first $k$ steps in the algorithm $A$ that enumerates $X$. If $n$ has been enumerated in that part of the enumeration, then output $k$; otherwise output $0$. (There is a recursive function $f$ that does this.) Notice that algorithm $B_n$ outputs only the value $0$ if $n\notin X$, but if $n$ is in $X$ and is enumerated at step $s$ by algorithm $A$ then $B_n$ outputs all natural numbers above $s$ (as well as $0$). So $f(n)$ is in the set you asked about if and only if $n\notin X$. By our choice of $X$, this is not computable.