Is it possible to reduce
$$(a+b)^2(c+d)^2-16abcd$$
to sum of squares?
This expression is used in proof of AM-GM inequality. It is known that
$$\dfrac{a+b}{2}\ge\sqrt{ab}\tag{1}$$
So, it can be proved reducing to sum of squares (in this case only one square):
$$a+b\ge2\sqrt{ab}\\
a-2\sqrt{ab}+b\ge0\\
\left(\sqrt a-\sqrt b\right)^2\ge0
$$
which is obviously true. So, we can say that for all non-negative real numbers $a,b$ it is true that
$$\dfrac{a+b}2\ge\sqrt{ab}$$
If we want to prove that
$$\dfrac{a+b+c+d}{4}\ge\sqrt[4]{abcd}$$
we will write
$$\sqrt[4]{abcd}=\sqrt{\sqrt{ab}\sqrt{cd}}\le\sqrt{\dfrac{a+b}2\cdot\dfrac{c+d}{2}}\le\dfrac{a+b+c+d}{4}$$
There is only used $(1)$ to prove this inequality (in this case we used it $2$ times). It is known that $(1)$ can be reduced to sum of squares. Then, is it possible to reduce
$$\sqrt{\sqrt{ab}\sqrt{cd}}\le\sqrt{\dfrac{a+b}2\cdot\dfrac{c+d}{2}}$$
to sum of squares? It is same as $(a+b)^2(c+d)^2-16abcd$, but what next? If it is impossible, can we prove that?
2026-03-28 08:51:23.1774687883