Let $X$ and $Y$ be two normed space. We suppose that $T\colon X\to Y$ is an isomorphism. It's true or false that
$$X\;\text{Reflexive}\implies Y\;\text{Reflexive}?$$
I would like to answer yes, but I can't prove it. Could anyone suggest me something?
$\newcommand{\J}{\mathcal{J}}$Of course this is true: linear isomorphism makes linear properties of spaces indistinguishable.
Let $X,Y$ be normed linear spaces and let $T:X\cong Y$ be an isomorphism of normed linear spaces.
We are given that the canonical embedding $\J_X:X\hookrightarrow X^{\ast\ast}$ is an isomorphism. We want to show $\J_Y:Y\hookrightarrow Y^{\ast\ast}$ is an isomorphism. We only need to check bijectivity. But $T^{\ast\ast}:X^{\ast\ast}\to Y^{\ast\ast}$ and $T$ are both bijective so it only suffices to check that $\J_Y\circ T=T^{\ast\ast}\circ\J_X:X\to Y^{\ast\ast}$.
Fix $x\in X$, $\phi\in Y^\ast$. It suffices to show that $T^{\ast\ast}(\J_X(x))(\phi)=\J_Y(T(x))(\phi)$, or that: $$\J_X(x)(\phi\circ T)=\phi(T(x))$$
Which is true.