I have been searching around for a proof (that I can understand) that the cardinality of the irrationals equals $\mathfrak{c},$ the cardinality of the reals. (This, of course, is different than showing that the cardinality of the irrationals is uncountable.)
Based on the post I have cited in the title:
Does $k+\aleph_0=\mathfrak{c}$ imply $k=\mathfrak{c}$ without the Axiom of Choice?
would I be correct in arguing that the cardinality of the irrationals must be $\mathfrak{c}$; for otherwise, if $k$ were greater than $\aleph_0$ (say $I$) but less than $\mathfrak{c}$, then $I + \aleph_0 = \mathfrak{c},$ which would be impossible since that would imply that the sum of two transfinite numbers less than $\mathfrak{c}$ can equal $\mathfrak{c}$?
Also, am I correct in assuming that the theorem cited by the aforementioned post is indeed a published result that does not rely on the Axiom of Choice?
Thank you.
You don't need an indirect argument (that is, saying "for otherwise ..." is a detour). Just use the property directly:
$\mathbb R$ is the disjoint union of $I$ and $\mathbb Q$, and I assume you know $|\mathbb Q|=\aleph_0$, so this tells you $|I|+\aleph_0 = \mathfrak c$. Therefore, setting $k=|I|$ in the property you link to, we get $|I|=\mathfrak c$. Done!
Alternatively, you can simply describe a concrete bijection $f:\mathbb R\to I$:
$$ f(x) = \begin{cases} x+\sqrt2 & \text{if there is an }n\ge 0\text{ such that }x-n\sqrt2\in\mathbb Q \\ x & \text{otherwise} \end{cases} $$