This question relates to Robin's Inequality. Is $\sigma{(n^2)}$ < (2 n) $\sigma{(n)}$ ? For what integer values of n is this satisfied?
Regarding the $\sigma (n)$ function.
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We can prove the inequality (actually a stronger inequality) with the explicit formula for $\sigma(n)$ in terms of the prime factorisation of $n$. For
$$n = \prod_{k=1}^r p_k^{\alpha_k},$$
we have
$$\sigma(n) = \prod_{k=1}^r \frac{p_k^{\alpha_k+1}-1}{p_k-1},$$
and so
$$\begin{align} \frac{\sigma(n^2)}{n\sigma(n)} &= \prod_{k=1}^r \frac{p_k^{2\alpha_k+1}-1}{p_k^{\alpha_k}(p_k^{\alpha_k+1}-1)}\\ &= \prod_{k=1}^r \frac{(p_k^{2\alpha_k+1}-p_k^{\alpha_k}) + (p_k^{\alpha_k}-1)}{p_k^{\alpha_k}(p_k^{\alpha_k+1}-1)}\\ &= \prod_{k=1}^r \left(1 + \frac{p_k^{\alpha_k}-1}{p_k^{\alpha_k}(p_k^{\alpha_k+1}-1)}\right)\\ &\leqslant \prod_{k=1}^r \left(1 + \frac{p_k-1}{p_k(p_k^2-1)}\right) \tag{$\ast$}\\ &= \prod_{k=1}^r \left(1 + \frac{1}{p_k(p_k+1)}\right)\\ &\leqslant \prod_{k=1}^r \left(1 + \frac{1}{p_k^2}\right)\\ &< \prod_{p\in\mathbb{P}} \left(1+\frac{1}{p^2}\right)\\ &= \prod_{p\in\mathbb{P}} \frac{1 - \frac{1}{p^4}}{1-\frac{1}{p^2}}\\ &= \frac{\zeta(2)}{\zeta(4)}\\ &= \frac{15}{\pi^2}\\ &< 1.52, \end{align}$$
where in $(\ast)$ we used that $\frac{m^\alpha-1}{m^\alpha(m^{\alpha+1}-1)} \leqslant \frac{m-1}{m(m^2-1)}$ for $m \geqslant 2$ and $\alpha \geqslant 1$, which can be elementarily verified. If we don't replace $\frac{1}{p(p+1)}$ with $\frac{1}{p^2}$ two lines below $(\ast)$, we get a sharp bound, which however I don't know how to evaluate explicitly. The sharp bound is approximately $1.368432778$.
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To complete Daniel Fischer's answer:
A closed form for the sharp bound is $$\prod_{p \in \mathbb{P}}{\left(\dfrac{p^2 + p + 1}{p^2 + p}\right)} = \dfrac{\zeta(2)}{\zeta(3)} \approx 1.368432778.$$
See this MSE question for more.
Sorry: not sure about this. With the inclusion of the factor 2, your quantity is not multiplicative. Evidently the large (and increasing) values of $\sigma(n^2) / (n \sigma(n)),$ which really is multiplicative, occur at the primorials, that is the product of the consecutive primes. Here are the first few ratios:
Should not be too hard to prove stuff and decide whether, at the primorials, the ratio is bounded. Simple analytic number theory bounds once you stick to primorials.
It appears that we always have $\sigma(n^2) < 2 n \sigma(n).$ As both sides are "multiplicative," it suffices to prove this for $1$ and all primes and prime powers. For example, prime $n=p,$ we get $\sigma(p^2) = p^2 + p + 1,$ while $n \sigma(n) = p (p+1) = p^2 + p,$ slightly smaller. But then double it and it becomes larger.
For $n=p^2,$ $\sigma(n^2) = \sigma(p^4) = p^4 + p^3 + p^2 + p + 1.$ Meanwhile, $n \sigma(n) = p^2 \sigma(p^2) = p^2 (p^2 + p + 1) = p^4 + p^3 + p^2,$ again slightly smaller, double it and it becomes bigger.