let $p(x)$ be a polynomial such that :
$ P(x) = a_{n}x^n + a_{n-1}x^{n-1} +\cdots+a_{1}x + a_{0} $ with roots $ r_{1}, r_{2}, \cdots , r_{n} $ , My question here is how to show that ($1$) is true using induction proof
$$\frac{1}{r_{1}} + \frac{1}{r_{2}} + \cdots + \frac{1}{r_{n}} = -\frac{a_{1}}{a_{0}}\tag{1}$$ ?.
Note: Really my attempt failed in the first step for initial condition
If you don't mind having a non-inductive proof, here it goes: let$$Q(x)=a_0x^n+a_1x^{n-1}+\cdots+a_n.$$Then the roots of $Q(x)$ are the inverses of the roots of $P(x)$, that is, they are $\frac1{r_1},\frac1{r_2},\ldots,\frac1{r_n}$. And the sum of the roots of $Q(x)$ is $-\frac{a_1}{a_0}$.