Relationship between O and o notation

3.6k Views Asked by At

In big-O notation, $f(x) = O(g(x))$ as $x\rightarrow \pm\infty$ if

$$\exists C, \delta>0: \forall |x| \geq \delta: |f(x)| < C |g(x)|$$

and, for the case I'm more interested in here, $f(x) = O(g(x))$ as $x\rightarrow 0$ if

$$\exists C, \delta>0: \forall |x| \leq \delta: |f(x)| < C |g(x)|$$

In little-o notation, $f(x) = o(g(x))$ means

$$\lim_{|x|\rightarrow0}\frac{f(x)}{|g(x)|} = 0$$

I've come across big-O before, but this is the first time I've seen little-o. I have experience in applied math, but very little in pure math, and my first reaction (for $x\rightarrow 0$) was "they mean the same thing". Then I thought "but little-o is a more precise upper bound".

What is the relationship between these two notations, and what does the distinction mean practically?

4

There are 4 best solutions below

5
On BEST ANSWER

In the briefest possible terms, $f \in O(g)$ is like saying $f \leqslant g$ asymptotically, and $f \in o(g)$ is like saying $f < g$ asymptotically.

As an example, if $f(x) = x$ and $g(x) = 2x$,we have that that $f \in O(g)$, but $f \notin o(g)$ and $g \notin o(f)$. If $f(x) = x^2$ and $g(x) = x$, then $f \in o(g)$ and $f \in O(g)$.

As an aside, be very aware of context. In various probabilistic situations, we define $O$-notation with a limit as $x\rightarrow 0$. In most algorithmic applications, we take limits as $x \rightarrow \infty$. Always make sure it's clear what you're working with before using either notation. $O$-notation is probably the most abused thing in all of mathematics.

0
On

check this out :

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Big_O_notation

:-) it's not just Big O notation in the page

6
On

Little $o$ means lim sup of absolute value $=0$, big $O$ means lim sup of absolute value $< \infty$.

0
On

Looking at how $O(1)$ and $o(1)$ are sufficient to understand the general case.

Suppose $f \in O(1)$. Then

$$ \lim_{x \to +\infty} f(x) < +\infty$$

if the limit exists. Or more generally, if the limit does not exist, then

$$\sup_{x \to +\infty} f(x) < +\infty$$

Now suppose $f \in o(1)$. Then

$$\lim_{x \to \infty} f(x) = 0 $$