In a documentation about the Great Pyramid of Giza, I heared following three theses about its measurements and the numbers $\pi$ and $\phi$ (the golden ratio).

Measurement
The Great Pyramid of Giza had originally following measurements:
$$s = 230.33\textrm{m}$$
$$h_p = 146.59\textrm{m}$$
$$\alpha = 51°50'$$
Thesis 1:
If you divide the perimeter of the pyramid $4s$ by the height $h_p$, you will get $2\pi$ (error < 0.01%)
$$\frac{4s}{h_p} = 2\pi$$
Thesis 2:
If you divide the surface of the base $s^2$ by the of the rest of the lateral surface $4A_m$, you will get the major of the golden ratio (0.618..., error < 0.01%):
$$\frac{s^2}{4A_m} = maj. a = \phi-1$$
Thesis 3:
The cosine of the angle of the Great Pyramid $\alpha$, will result in the major of the golden ratio, too (error unknown):
$$cos(\alpha) = maj. a = \phi-1$$
Putting together thesis 1 and thesis 2, I get following formula:
$$\phi = f(\pi) = 1 + \pi \frac{\sqrt{16+\pi^2}}{16+\pi^2}$$
The very interesting part is that $s$, $A_m$ and $h_p$ have been cancelled out, so that this formula is valid for all square pyramids with $2\frac{s}{h_p} = \pi$.
Question: How can I prove or falsify this formula? Using my calculator, it seems that both terms are not equal, but it could be simply a rounding error of the calculator.
If it is true, is there a way to express $\pi = f(\phi)$ using this formula?
Side-question about thesis 3: Is it possible that $\alpha = arccos(\phi-1) = arccos(\frac{\sqrt{5}-1}{2})$ can be expressed as a non-trigonometrial formula or as non-transcendental number?
$\phi$ is algebraic while $\pi$ is transcendental, so an equation such as $$ \phi = 1 + \pi \dfrac{\sqrt{16 + \pi^2}}{16 + \pi^2}$$ can't possibly be correct. Indeed, your calculator should show you that it isn't even very close.
$\arccos(\phi - 1)$ is a transcendental number by Lindemann's theorem that $e^x$ is transcendental whenever $x$ is nonzero and algebraic.
EDIT: $\arccos(\phi - 1)$ is also not a rational multiple of $\pi$. If $t = \arccos(\phi - 1)$, we have $w = \exp(it)$ satisfying $w + 1/w = 2 z$, and then $p(w) = w^4 + 2 w^3 - 2 w^2 + 2 w + 1 = 0$. This polynomial is irreducible over the rationals. Now if $t$ were a rational multiple of $\pi$, $w$ would be a root of unity, so $p(w)$ would have to be a cyclotomic polynomial, which it is not.
It is also not an algebraic multiple of $\pi$, by the Gelfond-Schneider theorem.