I have the sequence ($N \rightarrow R$):
$$ n \, \left( 2^{1/n} \, - \, 1 \right) $$
If I consider the limit:
$$ \lim_{n \rightarrow + \infty} {n \, \left( 2^{1/n} \, - \, 1 \right)} $$
and the limit of the function ($R \rightarrow R$):
$$ \lim_{x \rightarrow + \infty} {x \, \left( 2^{1/x} \, - \, 1 \right)} $$
is there some formal mathematical reason that ensures me that the two limits are equal?
Thank you in advance.