In a linear algebra book I'm reading now, there was the following exercise:
Let $W\subseteq V$ be a subspace of vector space $V$. Do there always exist two subspaces $W_1,W_2\subseteq V$ such that:
$W_1+W_2=V$
$W_1\cap W_2=W$
$W_1\neq V,W_2\neq V$
The answer is clearly no if we allow $W=V$, but even without it we can find counterexamples, e.g. $W=\Bbb R\times\{0\},V=\Bbb R^2$.
Critical property of the example above is that there are no "intermediate" spaces, i.e. if $W\subseteq W'\subseteq V$, then $W'=W$ or $W'=V$. I started wondering whether this is an equivalent condition to failure of condition in problem, and I found out it is the case. Below I present a proof of this fact, which however makes heavy use of the axiom of choice (in existence of bases).
My question now is:
Can the equivalence which I state and prove below be shown without any appeal to axiom of choice?
For $W$ subspace of $V$ the following are equivalent:
There exist subspaces $W_1,W_2$ which satisfy 1-3 above
There exists a proper subspace of $V$ properly containing $W$.
Proof: 1 $\Rightarrow$ 2: I claim $W_1$ is such a proper subspace. Clearly $W\subseteq W_1\subsetneq V$. If $W_1=W$, then $V=W_1+W_2=W+W_2=W_2$ as $W\subseteq W_2$, but this is a contradiction.
2 $\Rightarrow$ 1: Let $W\subsetneq W_1\subsetneq V$. Let $B_1$ be any basis of $W$, $B_2$ any basis of $W_1$ containing $B_1$ and $B_3$ any basis of $V$ containing $B_2$. Define $W_2=\text{span}((B_3\setminus B_2)\cup B_1)$. It's straightforward to see that $W_1,W_2$ satisfy the properties we want them to.
According to this answer on MO, it is consistent with ZF for there to exist a vector space $V$ which is not $\leq 1$-dimensional and has no nontrivial direct sum decomposition. Taking $W=0$, we get a counterexample to your question. (Note that more generally, your question is equivalent to asking whether the quotient $V/W$ admits a nontrivial direct sum decomposition.)