In a proof for a problem i'm working on, there is a step in the solutions:
$\vec{a} \vec{a}^T \vec{b} = \vec{b}^T \vec{a} \vec{a}$
$\vec{a}, \vec{b} \in R^2$ for this problem.
I verified this holds on paper and on matlab for $R^2$ and $R^3$, so I'm assuming it also holds for $R^m$. I dont remember ever learning about this, so was a bit surprised to see it.
Wondering: How is this motivated? Did I simply forget about this result from my linear class? Does this result hold in the complex domain aswell?
Thanks
Suppose $a, b \in \mathbb{R^n}$. Then we have that $a^Tb$ and $b^Ta$ are both the same as the dot product $a \cdot b$ and $b \cdot a$. These are both scalars. So multiplying $a$ on the left and the right by this quantity is the same.