Let's suppose I do a regression between earnings and age (and suppose I do not know the distribution of earnings). Would it be possible for the residuals to be normally distributed?
I am thinking it would not be possible since earnings only takes on positive values and since the support of the normal is from $-\infty$ to $\infty$, it would not be normal. However, since residuals are errors, they can be both positive and negative, so I am starting to question my hypothesis here.
Any help would be great on whether or not it is possible for residuals to be normal for the scenario I described.
If earnings are always positive then no, the residuals cannot be normally distributed, even though many may be negative: the magnitude of the negative residuals are bounded by the highest predicted earnings on the regression line.
That may not be the major issue: more important might be issues such as the skewness of earnings distributions at any age, or a non-linear relationship between earnings and age .