How far can the Lagrange's mean value theorem for derivative be used to make the statement : if f is the derivative of some function on [a,b], then there exists a number $\xi\in{[a,b]}$ such that $$\int_{a}^{b}fdx=f(\xi)(b-a)$$
2026-04-06 16:16:43.1775492203
Restrictions of Lagrange's mean value theorem for derivative?
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