Reverse inductive proof

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This is probably a stupid question.

Let us say I were to prove something by induction. Is it true, that the basecase must be the lowest possible number? If I wanted to prove that the formula holds for 1, 2, 3, ... , 999 for example, the basecase cannot be 5 right? Logically, if it holds for 5, it does not necessarily hold for 4, 3, 2 and 1, correct?

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The base case can be 5, as long as you prove the cases 1,2,3 and 4 in some other way.

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With induction we usually prove something for all integers bigger than or equal to the base case value. If we show that a statement holds for $n=5$, and show that if it holds for $n$ then it holds for $n+1$, we have shown that the statement holds for all integers greater than or equal to $5$. However, nothing stops you from also using induction in the other direction: That is, also prove that if it holds for $n$ then it holds for $n-1$. Nów if we can show that the statement holds for an arbitrary base case, we have automatically proven it for any integer! (This form of induction isn't very common though).