I was trying to show whether or not the function:
$f: [0,1 ] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$
$f(x)= \frac {1}{n}$ for $x = \frac {1}{n}$ $(n \in \mathbb{N})$
and
$f(x) = 1$ if the condition isn't satisfied
was integrable, but I'm having trouble figuring out the upper and lower sums. If anyone could point me in the right direction I would appreciate it.
You may also be aware that a function is Riemann integrable if it has only countably many discontinuities; here the only discontinuities occur at $\frac{1}{n}$ for $n\in\mathbb{N}$, thus it is certainly Riemann integrable and $f(x)=1$ a.e., thus $\int_0^1f(x)\:dx=1$.