I know a proof that Riemann integrable positive function $f$ defined on $[a,b]$ is bounded.
Suppose $f\geq 0$ is unbounded. First, for each $n$, choose a point $a_n$ in $[a,b]$ such that $f(a_n) > n$. Let $a$ be an arbitrary positive real number. Choose $n$ with $a > \frac1n$, and we can have a partition $p$ with each interval length bigger than $\frac1n$ while mesh($p$) $< a$. Then $R(f, p) > f(a_{n^2}) \frac1n = n$ so the Riemann sums do not tend to a finite limit.
But I think while we choose $a_n$ in the first step, countable choice is used. Are there any other ways to prove it without using some kind of choice, since this is a very 'basic' theorem in 'elementary 'analysis so it seems weird that it requires some kind of choice axiom.
You don't have to choose the whole sequence in advance. We assumed that $f$ is unbounded, so for any given $n$ we can find $x$ such that $f(x) > n^2$, that's just part of the definition.
Now for any fixed $a$ pick a suitable $n$, and $x$ such that $f(x)>n^2$, etc. We are really using the whole sequence here. It's a proof of convenience.