Riemann integral problem 3

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For any real number $x$, $\tan^{-1}(x)$ denote unique real number $\theta$ in (-$\pi\over2$, $\pi\over2$) such that $\tan\theta=x$. Then evaluate

$\lim_{n\to\infty}$ $\sum_{m=1}^n \tan^{-1}$$1\over(1+m+m^2)$

How can I resolve that ? I don't know how to make to appear 1/n to evaluate in [0,1]

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We have

$$\sum_{m = 1}^n \tan^{-1} \frac{1}{1 + m + m^2} = \sum_{m = 1}^n \tan^{-1} \frac{(m+1) - m}{1 + (m+1)m} = \sum_{m = 1}^n [\tan^{-1}(m+1) - \tan^{-1}(m)],$$

which is equal to

$$\tan^{-1}(n+1) - \tan^{-1}(1) = \tan^{-1}(n+1) - \frac{\pi}{4}$$

by telescoping. Taking the limit as $n\to \infty$ yields

$$\frac{\pi}{2} - \frac{\pi}{4} = \frac{\pi}{4}.$$