Is there any (measure theoretic) explanation that why do we get some positive valued answer with the help of Riemann integration . Since the length of each subinterval is tending to zero and since the rational numbers form a set of measure zero the positive valued answer of the Riemann integral we get is due to the irrational numbers is there any explanation about why is this happening?
2026-03-30 20:38:12.1774903092
Riemann integration Real Analysis
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