Can anyone offer some help?
Let $R$ be an unital ring $(1\ne 0)$. Recall than with $R^{\,\text{op}}$ we denote the opposite ring which is a ring as usual, only it haw a reverse multiplication $\left( x\square y=yx \right)$.
We denote $R$ as a left $R$-module with ${}_{R}R$. (equivalently for right R-module)
Prove that
$\operatorname{End}_{R}({}_{R}R)\cong R^{\,\text{op}}$,
$\operatorname{End}_{R}({}_{R}R)=R$.
Hint: if $f$ is an endomorphism of ${}_{R}R$, then $f(r)=f(1\cdot r)=f(1)r$
Thank you for your time
Hint:
The morphism $\;\operatorname{End}_R({}_RR)\longrightarrow R^{\,\text{op}}$ maps an endomorphism $f$ to $\varphi(f)=f(1)$.
You have to check that