Is the map
$$\pi : \mathbb{Z}/b\mathbb{Z} \to \mathbb{Z}/a\mathbb{Z},$$ where $\pi([k]_b) = [k]_a$ and $a|b$, a ring homomorphism?
I ask because in a set of notes I read, it was given that the map
$$\pi : \mathbb{Z}/p^n\mathbb{Z} \to \mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}$$
is a ring homomorphism since $p|p^n$, given by $\pi([a]_{p^n}) = [a]_p$.
I'm somewhat confused as to why this is the case. Can we simply map the elements of $\mathbb{Z}/p^n\mathbb{Z}$ to their corresponding residue classes in $\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}$? What goes wrong if $a \nmid b$? It seems as if $[1]_b$ doesn't map to $[1]_a$ if we lack this condition but I'm not sure..
Use the third isomorphism theorem, since $a|b$ we have $(a)\supseteq (b)$ hence
So the reduction map is a well-defined ring map.
If there is no division then there is no inclusion of ideals, so there is no map down since the fourth isomorphism theorem tells you that the only ideals of $\Bbb Z/(n)$ are the $(m)/(n)$ with $m|n$ since this is the only case where $(m)\supseteq (n)$.