Apologies for asking such a basic question, but I am trying to understand how Set Theory represents identical sets (in Quantum Physics sets of identical particles can behave oddly) and the question arose when I read about Russell's countably infinite set of pairs of Socks in various Axiom of Choice questions.
Instead of socks turn it into something mathematical, so represent a sock as the set for the number 1. So a pair of socks is represented as the set {1,1} and call this set P. This means that the countably infinite set of pairs of socks becomes {P,P,....}.
The axiom of extensionality is in Set Theory $\forall a \forall b (a=b \leftrightarrow \forall z (z\in a \leftrightarrow z \in b))$
This presumably means {1,1} = {1} and also {P,P,...}={P}.
Also presumably the cardinal number of any set of identical sets is always 1.
So it appears that Set Theory can't actually distinguish a pair of socks from a single sock when considered as sets, as Set Theory would always think each pair of socks is actually only one sock. So how can the Russell question about selecting one sock from each of an infinite pair of socks (either as a sequence of pairs or as a set of pairs) be formally represented in Set Theory in a form that is relevant to discussions about the axiom of choice ?
Russell's example is divulgative, in order to clarify the need of the Axiom of Choice when dealing with infinite sets :
Socks are individual objects and not sets. Thus, the Axiom of Extensionality will not apply to them.
If they were sets, having no elements they will be all the same set, and specifically the empty set.
Thus, a pair of socks is a set with two "distinct" elements.
The issue is : from a mathematical point of view there is no "uniform" property that can identify in one fell swoop one of the two socks of each pair from the other one, in the case of an infinite collection.
This is not the case with the infinite collection of pairs of shoes, where we can simply say : "choose the right shoe".