The function $f$ is differentiable in $[0,1]$ and $f$ has infinite roots in $[0,1]$. Prove that there exists $c\in [0,1]$ such that $f(c)=f'(c)=0.$
My attempt: Assume $x_1, x_2,...,x_n,...$ are roots of $f(x)=0$. Since $(x_n)$ is bounded, there exists $({x_n}_k)$ converging to $c\in [0,1]$. Since $f$ is continuous in $[0,1]$, we deduce that $f(c)=0$.
Can $f'(c)=0$?
Yes, your approach works. You have$$f'(c)=\lim_{x\to c}\frac{f(x)}{x-c},$$and therefore, if $(a_n)_{n\in\Bbb N}$ is a sequence of elements of $[0,1]$ such that $\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n=c$, then$$f'(c)=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{f(a_n)}{a_n-c}.$$But$$\frac{f(x_{n_k})}{x_{n_k}-c}=0,$$for any $k\in\Bbb N$, and $\lim_{k\to\infty}x_{n_k}=c$. So, $f'(c)=0$.