At the end of (b) of Theorem 7.23 in Rudin's Functional Analysis, it says
"Since (1) holds for $z \in \mathbb{R}^n$ (by the choice of $u$), Lemma 7.21 completes the proof of (b)."
Here, (1) is $\mathbf{f(z) = u(e_{-z})}$, where $u \in \mathscr{D}'(\mathbb{R}^n)$. The latter part of the statement is clear, so the only thing I have to understand is why (1) holds for $z \in \mathbb{R}^n$.
The condition for $f$ is that $\vert f(x) \vert \le \gamma(1 + \vert x \vert)^N $ and the book goes on to say
"The restriction of $f$ to $\mathbb{R}^n$ is therefore in $\mathscr{S}_n'$ and is the Fourier transform of some tempered distribution." $(*)$
However, I really don't know why (1) holds for $z \in \mathbb{R}^n$ only based on the above statement $(*)$, especially provided that $e_{-z}(t) = e^{-iz \cdot t}$ is not in $\mathscr{S}_n'$ and $f$ is not in $L^1(\mathbb{R}^n)$. Maybe the approximation works, but I am still struggling to show (1).
Any help would be appreciated!
Hint: If $\phi \in \mathcal S_n$ then $\hat {\phi} (y)=\int \phi (x) e_{-y} (x) dx$. Apply $u$ to get $\int f \phi=\int u(e_{-y}) \phi$ for all $\phi \in \mathcal S_n$.