I have a question about this example. I follow the beginning:
Define $S:= \{{x,y} \in \mathbb R^2:x^2+y^2=1\}$. This is a 1-manifold when equipped with chart $(-1,1)\to \mathbb R^2$:
$\Phi_1(x):=(x,\sqrt{1-x^2})$, $\Phi_2(x):=(x,-\sqrt{1-x^2})$, $\Phi_3(y):=(\sqrt{1-y^2}, y)$, $\Phi_4(y):=(-\sqrt{1-y^2}, y)$
It is clear $\Phi_1$ and $\Phi_3$ are going in opposite directions (as well as $\Phi_2$ and $\Phi_4$).
Formally, $V_{1,3}=S\cap(0,∞)^2$ and...
This is where I get confused.
and on $\Phi_1^{-1}(V_{1,3})=(0,1)$,
$(\Phi_3^{-1}\circ\Phi_1)(x)=\sqrt{1-x^2}$, so that
$(\Phi_3^{-1}\circ\Phi_1)'(x)=\frac{-2x}{2\sqrt{1-x^2}}<0$, so $\Phi_1$ and $\Phi_3$ have opposite orientations.
Can someone show me how these three functions are derived?
I've been trying and the ones I get don't match up.
Is $\Phi_1^{-1}(V_{1,3})=(0,1)$ because these charts only intersect on the positve axis (where $x,y\geq 0$)?
I'm not sure how to find the inverse of a chart or why it becomes one 'coordinate' in $(\Phi_3^{-1}\circ\Phi_1)(x)$ and $(\Phi_3^{-1}\circ\Phi_1)'(x)$ instead staying two like in $\Phi_i$ from the first part. (I understand the differentiation to get $(\Phi_3^{-1}\circ\Phi_1)'(x)$).
Apologies if I haven't explained that very well.
Any help greatly appreciated!
In order: