I understand that this might be much simpler than the way I understand PDEs. At first, I tried to solve this problem using examples of functions $f$ and $g$, but apparently I must prove it for any smooth functions $f$ and $g$. I would appreciate your help.
Here goes:
- Given two smooth functions of form $f=f(y)$ and $g=g(z)$, prove that:
- $u(t,x) = f(x-t)$ is a solution of the PDE $\frac{\partial u}{\partial t}+\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}=0$.
- $u(t,x) = g(x+t)$ is a solution of the PDE $\frac{\partial u}{\partial t}-\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}=0$.
- $u(t,x) = f(x-t)+g(x+t)$ is a solution of the PDE $\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial t^2}-\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2}=0$.
The functions $f$ and $g$ are supposed to be the same throughout 1. to 3. Any smooth functions $f$ and $g$. Without using specific Ansatz/sample functions, how do I expand each partial derivative of the function $u$?
This really is the chain rule. Taking the first example, maybe it would help to rewrite $x-t=w(x,t)$ and compute $$ u_x=\partial_xf(w(x,t))=f'(w(x,t))w_x(x,t) $$ so $u_x=f'(x-t)$ since $w_x=1$.
Similarly, $$ u_t=-f'(x-t) $$ So that $u_t+u_x=0$.
All we asked from $f$ in the above is that it be differentiable.