I am unable to prove the claim that $f''(x)=1$ if $x=c$, and $f''(x)=0$ otherwise.
Let $f(x)=\max(0,x-c)$ for some $c\in\mathbb R$ given. By definition, $f''(x)=\lim_{h\to0}\frac{f(x+h)-2f(x)+f(x-h)}{h^2}$. If $x<c$, each term in the numerator is $0$ for small $h$. If $x=c$, the numerator is $h$, so the limit is $0$. If $x>c$, the numerator is $0$.
Clearly I'm missing something. Any guidance is greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance.
EDIT: Context of the question is the exposition of Dupire's formula in Bergomi's Stochastic Volatility Modeling, page 27:

$$\begin{align}f(x)~&:=~\max(0,x-c)~=~(x-c) ^+,\cr f^{\prime}(x)~&=~\theta(x-c),\cr f^{\prime\prime}(x)~&=~\delta(x-c).\end{align} $$