Show that using the substitution: $$ y(x) = u(x)v(x) \quad $$where $$ v(x) = exp(-\frac12 \int p(x)\ dx)$$ transforms the DE: $$y''+p(x)y'+q(x)y=0$$ into: $$u''+f(x)u=0$$
2026-04-13 16:11:07.1776096667
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Second order, homogeneous, linear differential equation transformation with a substitution
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$$ v(x) = \exp(-\frac12 \int p(x)\ dx)$$ $v'=-\frac12 p(x)\exp(-\frac12 \int p(x)\ dx) = -\frac12 pv$
$v''=-\frac12( p'v+pv')= -\frac12 p'v+\frac14 p^2v$
$$y'=(uv)'=v'u+vu'=-\frac12 pvu+vu'$$ $$y''=v''u+2v'u'+vu''=-\frac12 p'vu+\frac14 p^2vu-pvu'+vu''$$ $y''+py'+qy=0$
$\left(-\frac12 p'vu+\frac14 p^2vu-pvu'+vu''\right)+p\left(-\frac12 pvu+vu' \right)+q(uv)=0$
After simplification :
$\left(-\frac12 p'u+\frac14 p^2u-pu'+u''-\frac12 p^2u+pu' +qu\right)v=0$ $$u''+\left(-\frac12 p'-\frac14 p^2 +q\right)u=0$$ Let $\quad -\frac12 \frac{dp}{dx}-\frac14 p(x)^2 +q(x)=f(x)$ $$u''+f(x)u=0$$
If we start with the equation
$y'' + p(x)y' + q(x)y = 0, \tag 1$
and define
$v(x) = \exp \left (-\dfrac{1}{2} \displaystyle \int p(x) \; dx \right), \tag 2$
and define $u(x)$ via
$y(x) = v(x) u(x), \tag 3$
which is always possible since $v(x) \ne 0; \tag 4$
we note that
$v'(x) = -\dfrac{1}{2}p(x) \exp \left ( -\dfrac{1}{2} \displaystyle \int p(x) \; dx \right ) = -\dfrac{1}{2}p(x)v(x); \tag 5$
thus
$y'(x) = v'(x) u(x) + v(x) u'(x)$ $= -\dfrac{1}{2}p(x) v(x) u(x) + v(x) u'(x) = (-\dfrac{1}{2}p(x)u(x) + u'(x))v(x); \tag 6$
$y''(x) = (-\dfrac{1}{2}p(x)u(x) + u'(x))'v(x) + (-\dfrac{1}{2}p(x)u(x) + u'(x)) v'(x) = (-\dfrac{1}{2}p'(x)u(x) - \dfrac{1}{2}p(x)u'(x) + u''(x))v(x) + (-\dfrac{1}{2}p(x)u(x) + u'(x)) (-\dfrac{1}{2}p(x)v(x))$ $= (-\dfrac{1}{2}p'(x)u(x) - \dfrac{1}{2}p(x)u'(x) + u''(x))v(x) + (\dfrac{1}{4}p^2(x)u(x) - \dfrac{1}{2} p(x)u'(x)) v(x)$ $= (\dfrac{1}{4}p^2(x) u(x) - \dfrac{1}{2}p'(x)u(x) - p(x) u'(x) + u''(x))v(x); \tag{7}$
$y''(x) + p(x)y'(x)$ $= (\dfrac{1}{4}p^2(x) u(x) - \dfrac{1}{2}p'(x)u(x) - p(x) u'(x) + u''(x))v(x) + (-\dfrac{1}{2}p^2(x)u(x) + p(x)u'(x))v(x)$$ = (-\dfrac{1}{4}p^2(x) u(x) - \dfrac{1}{2}p'(x)u(x) + u''(x))v(x); \tag{8}$
$y''(x) + p(x)y'(x) + q(x)y(x)$ $= (-\dfrac{1}{4}p^2(x) u(x) - \dfrac{1}{2}p'(x)u(x) + u''(x))v(x) + q(x) u(x) v(x)$ $= (u''(x) - \dfrac{1}{2}p'(x)u(x) - \dfrac{1}{4}p^2(x)u(x) + q(x)u(x))v(x); \tag{9}$
if we now set
$f(x) = q(x) - \dfrac{1}{2}p'(x) - \dfrac{1}{4}p^2(x), \tag{10}$
then (9) becomes
$y''(x) + p(x)y'(x) + q(x)y(x) = (u''(x)+ f(x)u(x))v(x); \tag{11}$
we now use (1) and the fact that $v(x) \ne 0$ and conclude that
$u''(x) + f(x)u(x) = 0. \tag{12}$