Let $K$ be a cyclic group. Let $\phi,\psi: K\rightarrow Aut(H)$ be group homomorphisms such that there exists $\zeta\in Aut(H)$ satisfying $\phi(K)=\zeta \psi(K)\zeta^{-1}$. Then can we prove $H\rtimes_{\phi}K\simeq H\rtimes_{\psi}H$?
My idea is to use the following
Theorem: Let $K,H$ be groups. Let $\phi,\psi: K\rightarrow Aut(H)$ be group homomorphisms and $\zeta\in Aut(H)$, $\alpha\in Aut(K)$ and $\psi=\sigma_{\zeta}\circ\phi\circ\alpha$, where $\sigma_{\zeta}\circ \phi\circ\alpha(k)=\zeta(\phi(\alpha(k)))\zeta^{-1}$ for all $k\in K$. Then $H\rtimes_{\phi}K\simeq H\rtimes_{\psi}H$.
Let $K=\langle a\rangle$ generated by $a$. From the condition $\phi(K)=\zeta \psi(K)\zeta^{-1}$, we have $\phi(a)=\zeta \psi(a^n)\zeta^{-1}$ for some integer $n$. Then how to continue? Thanks.
If $$\zeta \varphi(a)\zeta^{-1} = \psi(a)^t$$ I believe the map $$ (h, a^i) \mapsto (h^{\zeta}, a^{it} ) $$ provides the required isomorphism from the semidirect product with respect to $\varphi$ to the one with respect to $\psi$. Here I am writing morphisms as exponents.
(Here I am only addressing the first question, with $K = \langle a \rangle $ cyclic.)
Addendum Having seen the second answer by Derek Holt, I now realise this is only a morphism, which should be an isomorphism only when $a \mapsto a^t$ is.