Is it true that: $$ \dfrac{\partial f(x)g(y)}{\partial x} = \dfrac{d f(x)}{d x}g(y) $$
I have a feeling it is (just consider $g(y)$ to be a constant in the derivative), but I'm not very confident in this argument.
2026-04-21 11:35:00.1776771300
Separate functions in partial derivative
29 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in CALCULUS
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