A sequence $(a_n)$ is eventually in an set $A \subseteq \mathbb R$ if there exists an $N \in \mathbb N$ such that $a_n \in A$ for all $n \ge N.$
A sequence $(a_n)$ is frequently in an set $A \subseteq \mathbb R$ if, for every $N \in \mathbb N$ there exists an $n \ge N$ such that $a_n \in A$.
Question: Which definition is stronger? Does frequently imply eventually or eventually imply frequently?
Intuitively I am inclined to say that eventually implies frequently because from examples I reason that the sequence ${\lfloor \frac{5}{n}\rfloor}$ is eventually in $\{0\}$ and also frequently in $\{0\}$ but a sequence like $(-1)^n$ which is frequently in $\{1\}$ but not eventually.
However from looking at the quantifiers it seems to me that the converse should be true for I reason
$$\forall N \exists n(n \ge N \Rightarrow a_n \in A)$$ should imply $$\exists N \exists n(n \ge N \Rightarrow a_n \in A)$$ (i.e. frequnctly implies eventually)?
Am I making a mistake with the quantifiers? Which one is correct? Thanks in advance.
Eventually implies frequently. If $a_n \in A$ for all $n \ge N$, then for every $n$ you can take $m = \max(n,N)$ and have $m \ge n$ and $a_m \in A$.