Sequential problem for n=1, non linear regression

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I am trying to understand an example in my stats course notes, the example relates to calculating the best value for the next experiment.

The function of the line is very simple:

$$ln(Y_i) = ln(\theta^*_1 + \theta^*_2x_i) + \epsilon_i$$

The example works on a previous example where point estimates have already been obtained for $\theta^*_1$ and $\theta^*_2$ These are:

$$\theta = \begin{pmatrix} 3.9963\\ 2.3792 \end{pmatrix}$$

The values given already are:

i     y       x
1     4.11    0
2     6.32    1
3     8.21    2
4     10.43   3
5     14.29   4
6     16.78   5

So the question is, how to get the optimal value for $x_7$.

The equation that needs to be used is given, but doesnt make a lot of sense to me, particularly the last line, where some seemingly random numbers appear from nowhere.

Here is the notes provided: let the px1 vector $$r_{n+1} = \frac{\delta f(x_{n+1}. \theta)}{\delta\theta}$$

$$ C_{n+1} = X_{n+1}'X_{n+1} = \begin{pmatrix}X_n\\ r_{n+1}' \end{pmatrix}' \begin{pmatrix}X_n\\ r_{n+1}' \end{pmatrix} $$

$$ \phi = |C_{n+1}| = |\begin{pmatrix}X_n\\ r_{n+1}' \end{pmatrix}' \begin{pmatrix}X_n\\ r_{n+1}' \end{pmatrix}| = |X_n'X_n+r_{n+1}r_{n+1}'| $$ $$ \therefore \phi = |C_{n+1} + r_{n+1}r_{n+1}'| = |C_n|(1 + r_{n+1}'C_n^{-1}r_{n+1}) $$

Here comes the example "at which value of x, 0 <= x <= 2 should the next experiment be carried out"

$$ln(Y_i) = ln(\theta^*_1 + \theta^*_2x_i) + \epsilon_i$$

$$\theta = \begin{pmatrix} 3.9963\\ 2.3792 \end{pmatrix}$$

$$ X'X = \begin{bmatrix}0.11777 & 0.11660\\ 0.11660 & 0.33500 \end{bmatrix} $$

$$ r_7' = \begin{bmatrix} \frac{1}{\theta_1 + \theta_2 x_7} & \frac{x_7}{\theta_1 + \theta_2 x_7}\end{bmatrix} $$

Now, while I dont exactly understand all this - I can work out what its saying. What gets me, is the next bit.

$$ \phi = \frac{12.9358 - 8.9781x_7 + 4.534x_7^2}{(3.9963 + 2.3792x_7)^2} $$

Where did 12.9358, 8.9781, 4.534 come from?

Also, where did the devision part of this come from, above $\phi$ was calculated without any devision at all.

Finally, where did the $^2$ come from on the devisor?

Any help here would be greatly appreciated, I get the feeling its going to be very simple - I'm just missing something.

Thanks