consider 4 points in 2D in clockwise order as A,B,C,D forming a quadrilateral.
If the quadrilateral undergoes affine transformation then affine invariant will be preserved which is given by area of triangle ACD/ABC as per http://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/download?doi=10.1.1.109.5013&rep=rep1&type=pdf (see page 3 affine invariant)
My question is - Why can't it be ratio of areas across another diagonal BD i.e area of triangle ADB/BCD ?
Will both ratios be same ?
Thanks.
The moduli space of (labeled) convex plane quadrangles up to affine equivalence is two-dimensional. This can be seen as follows: Given such a quadrangle $Q\subset{\mathbb R}^2$ with vertices $A$, $B$, $C$, $D$ in counterclockwise order there is a unique affine map $T$ with $T(A)=(0,1)$, $T(B)=(0,0)$, and $T(C)=(1,0)$. It follows that $$T(D)=(u,v),\qquad{\rm whereby}\quad u>0,\quad v>0,\quad u+v>1\ ,$$ is uniquely determined; hence the pair $(u,v)$ is an affine invariant of $Q$.
The two diagonals of $Q$ (resp., $T(Q)$) partition $Q$ into a pair of triangles in two different ways, generating for each pair an area ratio $\lambda$, resp., $\mu$. The numbers $\lambda$ and $\mu$ are affine invariants as well. Doing the computations for $T(Q)$ it is easily seen that $u$ and $v$ are uniquely determined by the values of $\lambda$ and $\mu$. It follows that the pair $(\lambda,\mu)$ completely characterizes $Q$ up to affinity. For a parallelogram we have $\lambda=\mu=1$.