Ok so we are going to begin looking at Set theory next week in class so I thought I would try to learn a bit about it before we start. I am curious and perplexed by $(A \cap \emptyset)′$ in regard to what it can be simplified to as when using the rules of set theory.
For example if I have $U$ and $A$, $B$ are both subsets does that mean that $(A \cap \emptyset)′ = U$ or does $(A \cap \emptyset)′ = (A)'$?
If anyone can please provide some insight that would be much appreciated.