The question provides an answer, saying:
- $A \subset A \cup B$, then, $A \cap B \subset B$, then $A \subset B$
- $B \subset A \cup B$, then, $A \cap B \subset A$, then $B \subset A$
(1) and (2) $\Leftrightarrow A = B$
I know that when two sets are equal, they they're the subsets of each other. What I don't understand is where the OP has brought this answer from.
Statement:
$A\cup B = A\cap B\rightarrow A=B$
Proof:
Assume $A\cup B = A\cap B$
This means $a\in A \lor a\in B \leftrightarrow a\in A\land a\in B$
Now assume $a\in A$. Thus $a\in A\lor a\in B$. As such $a\in A\land a\in B$. Therefore $a\in B$. As such$A\subseteq B$. (This line 1. of the quote).
And similar can be shown for $a\in B$ (line 2). Therefore $A=B$.