Suppose we have a measurable function $f$ and $ \int f < \infty$ . We want to show that $\{x | f(x) = \infty\}$ is of measure 0. My attempt was the following: we can define the set $A = \{x | f(x) = \infty \}$ and we can define simple functions $\phi_n = n \chi_A$ where $\chi$ is the indicator function. Then, we see that $\phi_n \leq f$ $\forall n \geq 1$ and so we have that $\int \phi_n \leq \int f$ which implies that $n\chi_A \leq \int f$. From this point I don't know what to do or how to proceed. Is the process above a good one? How could I continue or can anyone give me another hint on how to prove this? Thanks!
2026-04-13 09:07:36.1776071256
Set $\{x | f(x) = \infty\}$ is of measure 0.
94 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail At
2
Continuing your proof: ($\mu$ is a measure)
$n\mu(A) \leq \int f$ and $ \int f < \infty$. Let $ \int f =a$. Then, $\forall n$ we have, $n \mu(A) \leq a$ . Hence, $\mu(A) \leq a/n$. So, letting $n$ tends to $\infty$, we get, $\mu(A)=0$.