Show by example that for$ A \in M_n \mathbb{H}, L_A : \mathbb{H}^n \rightarrow\mathbb{H}^n $ is not necessarily $\mathbb{H}$-linear
So I thought it would be linear by definition. Because if we have $ A \in M_n \mathbb{K}, L_A : \mathbb{K}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{K}^n $ such that for $X \in \mathbb{K}^n$ we would have $L_A (X) := (X . A^T)^T$ which i believe believe always give a linear value for example where $ X = [x,y]$ and $A = [[1,2],[3,4]]$ would give us $[x+2y,3x+4y]$
The dimension isn't relevant, so we might as well consider $n=1$ for simplicity.
Suppose $R$ is a ring and $a\in R$ does not commute with everything in the ring, i.e. $a\not\in Z(R)$. Then the left-multiplication-by-$a$ map $\phi_a(x)=ax$ is not $R$-linear, i.e. it does not satisfy $\phi_a(rx)=r\phi_a(x)$ for all $r\in R$. Can you convince yourself of this? Try writing out what the equality means using the definition of $\phi_a$, and maybe setting $x=1_R$ (supposing $R$ is unital) for even greater effect.
The idea here is that "$R$-linear" means that applying the matrix transformation and applying a scalar taken from $R$ commute (can be done in either order), and since the scalars themselves form a subring of the matrices (scalar multiples of the identity matrix), a necessary condition for the matrices to be $R$-linear is for all scalars to commute with all other scalars, i.e. $R$ commutative.