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$\exists y \forall x R(x,y) \rightarrow \forall x \exists y R(x,y)$
$\forall x \exists y F(x,y)$ does not imply $\exists y \forall x F(x,y)$
How do proofs of this nature usually work? When I try to prove the first one by saying:
$\mathcal{M} \models R(n,m)$ for all $n$ and some $m$ in the domain, so $\mathcal{M} \models \forall x \exists y R(x,y)$, I don't see why the same can't be applied for the second problem with $F(x,y)$. Can someone help me to intuitively understand these operations?
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Let the domain of the variables $x$ and $y$ be interpreted as the set of all people and let the statement $F(x,y)$ be interpreted as “$y$ is the mother of $x$.”
Then, $\forall x\exists yF(x,y)$ means that everybody has a mother (duh), while $\exists y\forall x F(x,y)$ means that there is a person who is everybody's mother (utter nonsense).