As the title says, the problem is:
Show if $\pi,\sigma$ are any permutation s.t $(\pi\sigma)^2=\pi^2\sigma^2$, then $\pi\sigma=\sigma\pi$.
There is a theorem that states
If $\pi,\sigma$ are any permutations s.t $\pi\sigma=\sigma\pi$, then $(\pi\sigma)^r=\pi^r\sigma^r$
So, it appears for $r=2$, we're proving the converse of the above theorem. To be frank, and I hate to give you guys a "no work" problem, I'm not even sure how to begin this. It seems so basic, but my head can't make a sense of any clear path. Can anyone lead me down the right path? It's just been hours of no progress with this...
This is true for any group. The condition you're working with is $gghh=ghgh$. See anything that can be cancelled on the left and/or on the right side of this equation?