I am working on the nonlinear pendulum differential equation given by
$$ \theta'' = -g\sin \theta. $$
Let $t \geq 0$ be fix, I define for $\theta_0 \in (-\frac\pi2, \frac\pi2)$ a mapping $S$ by
$$ S(\theta_0) = \theta(t; \theta_0), $$
where $\theta(t; \theta_0)$ is the solution of the initial value problem for the ODE defined above with initial conditions $\theta'(0) = 0$ and $ \theta(0) = \theta_0$.
I believe the mapping $S$ is Lipschitz continuous, but is it true? If yes, how could I prove it?
Reading through some old lecture notes, it seems that the derivative of $S$ is as many times continuously differentiable as the RHS of the problem. (I can't link anything here unfortunately)
By changing $(-\frac\pi2, \frac\pi2)$ to $[-\frac\pi2, \frac\pi2]$, $S$ is now a $C^1$ function on a compact interval, thus Lipschitz continuous.