Let $\mathbb{R}[x,y]$ denote the polynomial ring in two variables $x$, $y$ over $\mathbb{R}$, and let $I = (y^2-x,y-x)$ be the ideal generated by $y^2-x$ and $y=x$. Show that $$\mathbb{R}[x,y]/I$$ is not an integral domain.
To be honest, I have no idea to solve this question. I am thinking that if the $\mathbb{R}[x,y]/I$ is not an integral domain, $I$ is neither a prime ideal not a maximal ideal. But I don't know how to prove that. Could you please help me? Thank you very much!
In your example $y^2=x\bmod I$ and $y=x\bmod I$. This gives us $y^2=y\bmod I$, so $y(y-1)=0\bmod I$, and this suggests that $y\bmod I$ and $y-1\bmod I$ are zero divisors in $R/I$. (Here $R=\mathbb R[x,y]$.)
However we have to check that they are not zero. For instance, suppose $y=0\bmod I$. Then, from the golden rule, $y\in I$, that is, $y\in (y^2-x,y-x)$. Now write $$y=(y^2-x)f(x,y)+(y-x)g(x,y),$$ and for $x=y=1$ we get $1=0$, a contradiction. (Do the same for $y-1\bmod I$.)