Given that: $p$ is an odd prime, $a\geq 1,b \leq \frac{p-1}{2}$, and that $a \not\equiv b \pmod p$, show that $a^2 \not\equiv b^2 \pmod p$
Based on the second condition, I know that $a + b < p$ is true, which I think should be helpful, but I'm not sure how to use this.
I also tried to use the fact that $p = 2k + 1$, but again, I didn't find any luck with this.
I'm very new with congruences, so I really appreciate any help!
If $p\mid a^2-b^2=(a-b)(a+b)$, then $p\mid a+b$ or $p\mid a-b$ because it is prime. Now as you correctly noted $a+b\lt p$, so $p$ cannot divide $a+b$, therefore $p\mid a-b$; in other words $a\equiv b\pmod{p}$.