Chapter 8.
- (b) If $P$ is a polynomial in $\mathbb{C}^n$ and if $$ \int_{T^n} \vert P\vert \,d\sigma_n = 0 $$ then $P$ is identically $0$. (Hint: Compute $\int_{T^n} \vert P\vert^2 \,d\sigma_n$).
Here, $T^n$ is the torus that consists of all points $w = (e^{i\theta_1}, \ldots, e^{i\theta_n})$, and $\sigma_n$ is a Haar measure on it.
I think since $\vert P\vert$ is continuous on $T^n$ from $\int_{T^n} \vert P\vert \,d\sigma_n = 0 $, $\vert P\vert = 0$ on $T^n$, and accordingly, $\int_{T^n} \vert P\vert^2 \,d\sigma_n = 0$. However, how can I proceed along? Any help or hint would be appreciated!
I just give you the idea.
Once you know $\int |P^2|=0$, write $|P|^2$ as $P . \bar{P}$ (the complex conjugation) and express $P= \sum a_{i_1,\cdots,i_n} X_1^{i_1} \cdots X^{i_n}$. Developing and expressing integration on $T^n$ will give you a sum of terms $\int_{[0,2 \pi]^n} a_{i_1,\cdots,i_n} \bar{a}_{j_1,\cdots,j_n} e^{i(i_1-j_1) t_1+\cdots + i(i_n-j_n)t_n} dt_1 \cdots dt_n$. You can easily calculate these terms and you should be able to conclude.